I have a question about a proof in Fulton's Intersection theory. In the first chapter, he wants to prove that Chow groups are invariant with respect to homotopy, and the usual reductions tell us that's it's tantamount to proving it for $X$ an integral affine scheme, and for the trivial bundle $X\times \mathbb{A}^1$.
One can assume that our cycle $[V]$ in $X\times \mathbb{A}^1$ is mapped dominantly to $X$, and that the dimensions of $X$ and $V$ match.
In this case, he says that the cycle $V$ is defined by an ideal $I$, that becomes principal after tensoring with $K$, the fraction field of $A$ (with $X= \operatorname{Spec} A$).
And then he states that $$\operatorname{div}(f)=[V]-\sum [V_i]$$ where $V_i$ are varieties that are not dominantly mapped to $X$.
I don't really seem to grasp that last point. I've tried to work out on a baby example with $X=\mathbb{A}^1$, but in this case everything is trivial, and $\operatorname{div}(f)=[V]$. I have an intuition that it might have to do with the fact that $\operatorname{div}(f)$ is essentially $[f=0]-[f=\infty]$ (this is not "rigourous" but i hope you see what i mean), and thus that $[V]=[f=0]$ whence $[f=\infty]=\sum[V_i]$, but i cannot see clearly how it works.
Thank you!