Firstly we will prove $(b)$, then $(a)$ can be deduced easily. We will show that $Y \sim Poisson(\lambda p)$ using the fact that the Moment-generating function of $Y$ will be the Poisson one.
We have $X \sim Poisson(\lambda)$ and $\displaystyle M_X(t)=e^{\lambda\left(e^t - 1\right)}.$
Now
$$\begin{align}
M_Y(t)&=E[e^{it}]\\
&=\sum\limits_{i=0}^{\infty}{e^{it}P\left( Y=i \right)}\\
&=\sum\limits_{i=0}^{\infty}{e^{it}\left( \sum\limits_{j=i}^{\infty}{P( Y=i|X=j)P\left(X=j\right)}\right)}
\end{align}$$
but $\displaystyle P(Y=i|X=j)=\binom{j}{i}p^iq^{j-i}=\frac{j!}{(j-i)!i!}p^iq^{j-i}$, i.e. binomial, because the events asociated with probability $p$ are independet and $\displaystyle P(X=j)=\frac{e^{-\lambda} \lambda^j}{j!}$. So
$$\begin{align}
M_Y(t)
&=\sum\limits_{i=0}^{\infty}{e^{it}\left( \sum\limits_{j=i}^{\infty}{\frac{j!}{(j-i)!i!}p^iq^{j-i}\frac{e^{-\lambda} \lambda^j}{j!}}\right)} \\
&=e^{-\lambda}\sum\limits_{i=0}^{\infty}{e^{it}\frac{1}{i!}\frac{p^i}{q^i}\sum\limits_{j=i}^{\infty}{\frac{q^{j}\lambda^j}{(j-i)!}}} \\
&=e^{-\lambda}\sum\limits_{i=0}^{\infty}{\frac{1}{i!}\left(\frac{e^{t}p}{q}\right)^i\sum\limits_{j=i}^{\infty}{\frac{(q\lambda)^{j}}{(j-i)!}}} \\
&=e^{-\lambda}\sum\limits_{i=0}^{\infty}{\frac{1}{i!}\left(\frac{e^{t}p}{q} \right)^i\sum\limits_{j=i}^{\infty}{\frac{(q\lambda)^i(q\lambda)^{j}}{(q\lambda)^i(j-i)!}}} \\
&=e^{-\lambda}\sum\limits_{i=0}^{\infty}{\frac{1}{i!}\left(\frac{e^{t}p}{q} \right)^i(q\lambda)^i\sum\limits_{j=i}^{\infty}{\frac{(q\lambda)^{j-i}}{(j-i)!}}} \\
&=e^{-\lambda}\sum\limits_{i=0}^{\infty}{\frac{1}{i!}\left(\lambda e^{t}p \right)^i\sum\limits_{j=0}^{\infty}{\frac{(q\lambda)^{j}}{j!}}} \\
\end{align}$$
but we know $\displaystyle \sum\limits_{k=0}^{\infty}{\frac{x^{k}}{k!}}=e^x,$ hence
$$\begin{align}
M_Y(t)
&=e^{-\lambda}\sum\limits_{i=0}^{\infty}{\frac{1}{i!}\left(\lambda e^{t}p \right)^i e^{q\lambda}}
=e^{-\lambda}e^{q\lambda}\sum\limits_{i=0}^{\infty}{\frac{1}{i!}\left(\lambda e^{t}p \right)^i }
=e^{-\lambda(1-q)}e^{\lambda e^{t}p}=e^{\lambda p\left( e^t -1\right)},
\end{align}$$
therefore $Y \sim Poisson(\lambda p)$.