I am stuck on the following problem that says:
Find the complete integral of $(p+q)(px+qy)=1$,where $p={ \partial z \over \partial x},q={ \partial z \over \partial y}$.
My Attempt:
The given equation is : $f(x,y,z,p,q)=(p+q)(px +qy)-1$. So,Charpit's auxiliary equations are given by: $${dp \over p(p+q)}={dq \over q(p+q)}= {dz \over 0}={dx \over {-q(x-y)}}={dy \over {-p(y-x)}}$$. Now, from $${dp \over p(p+q)}={dq \over q(p+q)} \implies {dp \over p}={dq \over q} \implies p=aq,\,a $$ being arbitray constant. Now, I have to use $$dz=pdx+qdy=q(adx+dy)$$ . Now,I am stuck. The answer is given of the form: $$z(a+1)^{\frac 12}=2(ax+b)^{\frac 12}+b$$
I have used the formula ${dz \over {-pf_p-qf_q}}={dp \over {f_x+pf_z}}={dq \over {f_y+qf_z}}={dx \over {-f_p}}={dy \over {-f_q}}$. Here, $f_x={\partial f \over \partial x}$,.....
Can someone help me out? Thanks in advance for your time.