Suppose a particle moves in space with its position vector at time $t$ given by $\vec{r}(t) = f(t)\hat{i}+g(t)\hat{j}+h(t)\hat{k},\,\,$ $a < t < b$. Denote the particle's velocity at time $t$ by $\vec{v}(t)$. Assume that the particle does not pass through the origin. Let $t_0$ be the instant of closest approach to the origin. Show that $\vec{v}(t_0)$ is perpendicular to $\vec{r}(t_0)$.
Is it so easy that $\vec{v}(t)$ at $t_0$ is $0$? Hence $\vec{r}(t_0) \cdot \vec{v}(t_0) = 0$?
Differeniate, and set the derivative equal to 0. We get 2f(t)f′(t)+2g(t)g′(t)+2h(t)h′(t)=0. Why is the derivative = 0?
– John Sep 21 '13 at 03:45