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From what I gather, a function $f:\mathbb{C} \to \mathbb{C}$ is:

-Differentiable at $z_0$ iff the limit $\lim_{z \to z_0} \frac{f(z)-f(z_0)}{z-z_0}$ exists.

-Holomorphic at $z_0$ iff there exists a neighbourhood of $z_0$ in which $f$ is differentiable.

-Analytic at $z_0$ iff there exists a neighbourhood of $z_0$ in which $f(z) = \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} a_n (z-z_0)^n$.

And it is a theorem of complex analysis that the last two are equivalent.

Is this more or less right? Please correct me if I've made any mistakes.

Spine Feast
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    Yes, it's right. It may be better to speak explicitly of complex differentiability to distinguish it from real differentiability, but that's anybody's choice. – Daniel Fischer Sep 24 '13 at 14:14

1 Answers1

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You are correct.

(Answer added to keep the question off the unanswered list.)

mrf
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