I've been thinking this problem for so long it doesn't make sense to me now. I've been checking the other questions asked here on MSE, about it, (like these: 1, 2, 3, 4).
I have to show where this sequence converges uniformly: $$f_k(x):=\frac {x^3+kx}{kx^2+1}$$ with $f_k:[0,\infty)\to \Bbb R$
So far I've found the pointwise convergence, and is $f(x)=\frac 1x$.
If we look at the plot, and also by the fact that its limit is $1/x$, is clear that if $x\in [-1,1]$ the function goes crazy high as $k\to \infty$, so maybe the sequence is not uniformly convergent there, but for $|x|>1$ it approaches zero, so my gut tells me that is uniformly convergent there, I don't know if I'm interpreting the plot correctly, my gut hurts :( .
Now if I want to apply the techniques of the other questions, the difficulties that I find are that $f$ is not a constant nor a function that depends only of $k$ and it doesn't have a global max, so I'm stuck on how to procede.
Also I've noticed that $f_k(\frac 1k)\to 1$ and $f_k(k)\to \infty$, when $k\to\infty$, but this confuses me, would it mean that if $\alpha>0$, then $f_k$ doesn't converge in $[0,\alpha]$? if so, what does this $f_k(k)\to \infty$ means?
Here's the plot of some points: $k=1, k=2, k=4, k=20, k=100$ 