I have a quick question which I think should go like this, but I am not really sure and that is why I would like someone more knowledgeable than me to weigh in and say if I am correct.
Let us say that $X$ is an infinite loop space - it is well-known ( to the initiated) that this is equivalent to $X$ being a connective spectrum. I can see that from a connective spectrum $\{Y_n\}_{n \in \mathbb{Z}}$ it is easy to get an infinite loop space - take $Y_0$ to be your space. In the other way around, if X is an infinite loop space, do we get the spectrum $\{Y_n\}$ from X by setting $Y_i = 0 $ if $i <0$ (and the obvious maps) and $Y_0 = X = \Omega X_1 $, $Y_1= X_1$ , where the map $SY_0 \rightarrow Y_1$ is taken from the map $\Omega Y_0 \rightarrow \Omega Y_1$ (using that X is an infinite loop space) and so on?