The following is a theorem:
If $A$ is a self-adjoint matrix (i.e. $A^\dagger = A$), then $U = e^{iA}$ is a unitary matrix.
This is easy to prove: $(e^{iA})^\dagger = e^{-iA^\dagger} = e^{-iA}$, with the last step a consequence of self-adjointness of $A$. Since powers of matrices commute with themselves, $e^{iA}$ commutes with $e^{-iA}$, and so we can write $e^{iA}e^{-iA}=e^{iA-iA}=e^{0}=I$, where $I$ is the identity matrix. This shows that $(e^{iA})^{-1}=(e^{iA})^\dagger$, and hence that $e^{iA}$ is unitary.
This is all well and good. However, the following (the converse) is not a theorem:
If $U$ is a unitary matrix, then the (a?) matrix $A$ defined by $e^{iA} = U$ is self-adjoint.
I have been led to believe that the best way to disprove this is by counterexample, but I have no idea how to construct a non-self-adjoint matrix $A$ for which $e^{iA}$ is still unitary.
An explicit counterexample would be great, but an approach to figuring out how to find a counterexample would be even beter.