Consider the following theorem:

It appears in many different places but always with both conditions stated:
One: $g_i(0,...,0) = {\partial f\over \partial x_i}(0,...,0)$
Two: $f(x_1,...,x_n) = \sum_i x_i g_i$
But as far as I can tell the first one follows from the second one. Consider the case in two dimensions: Assume $f(x,y) = xg(x,y) + yh(x,y)$ where $f,g,h$ are smooth. Then $$ {\partial f \over \partial x } (x,y) = g(x,y) + x {\partial g \over \partial x } (x,y) + y {\partial h \over \partial x } (x,y)$$
and then
$${\partial f \over \partial x } (0,0) = g(0,0)$$
The same argument works for $n$ dimensions. What am I missing here? (Surely if one really did follow from two then only two would be stated?)
If "two" then of course the $g_i$ are already shown to exist.