Question : Supposing that a sequence $\{a_n\}$ is defined as $${a_{n+3}}^2=-{a_{n+2}}^2+2{a_{n+1}}^2+48a_{n+1}a_{n}+32{a_n}^2\ (n\ge 1)$$ $$a_1=a_2=a_3=1$$ then, is $a_n$ a square number for any $n$?
For example, we can see $$\sqrt{a_n} : 1,1,1,3,1,5,7,3,17,11,23,45,1,91,89,93,271,85,457,627,287,1541,967,2115,\cdots$$
Motivation : I found the following question in a book without any proof.
Supposing that a sequence $\{b_n\}$ is defined as $$b_{n+3}=-b_{n+2}+2b_{n+1}+8b_n\ (n\ge 1)$$ $$b_1=b_2=b_3=1,$$ then, prove that $b_n$ is a square number for any $n$.
This is obvious by the following relational expression : $$(b_{n+3}-b_{n+2})^2=64b_{n+1}b_n,$$ which can be shown by induction on $n$.
After solving this question, I've tried to find a similar sequence by using computer. Then, I reached the above expectation. The expectation seems true, but I can neither find any counterexample nor prove that the sequence always gives a square number. Can anyone help?