I'm having trouble with this problem in Ahlfors' Complex Analysis (page 238):
If a vertex of the polygon is allowed to be at $\infty$, what modification does the formula undergo? If in this context $\beta_k = 1$, what is the polygon like?
The formula he is referring to is (probably) $$F(w) = C \int_0^w \prod_{k=1}^n ( w - w_k)^{-\beta_k}dw + C'$$ which maps the unit disk coformally onto a polygon $\Omega$ with outer angles $\{\beta_k \pi\}$. Here $\{w_k\}$ are points on the unit circle, and $C,C'$ are complex constants.
Since $F(w)$ has no dependence on the vertices of $\Omega$ I can't see what modification he is talking about. Shouldn't the exact same formula hold in all cases?
Also, I believe that letting a vertex $z_k$ tend to $\infty$ should always force the corresponding outer angle $\beta_k \pi$ into $ \pi$ (that is $\beta_k \to 1$). Thus, I can't see how a polygon with an infinite vertex $z_k$ could have the corresponding $\beta_k$ other than 1.
Are my conclusions correct? If not, please help me figure this out.
Thanks!
P.S.
I do understand that having some $\beta_k=1$ means that the polygon admits two infinite parallel line segments (?).