I'm studing Evans PDE book, especifically, the proof of theorem 6 here.
Let $U\subset\mathbb{R}^n$ be an open set and $f:U\to\mathbb{R}$ a locally integrable function. In the proof is taken an open set $V\subset\mathbb{R}^n$ such that $B\subset V\subset\overline{V}\subset U$ (where $B$ is a closed ball that contains the support of $\eta_\varepsilon$).
As $f$ is locally integrable, we can conclude that $f$ is integrable over $\overline{V}$. However I need $f$ integrable over $V$. My analysis book says that if $X,Y\subset\mathbb{R}^n$ are both Jordan measurable and $f:X\cup Y\to\mathbb{R}$ is integrable then $f$ is integrable over $X$ and over $Y$.
So, my question is: can we ensure that $V$ and $\partial V$ are both Jordan measurable? Or, to be more precise, given an open set $U\subset\mathbb{R}^n$ and a closd ball $B\subset U$, is there an open set $V\subset U$ such that (i) $V\supset B$ and (ii) $V$ and $\partial V$ are both Jordan Measurable? (if so, I think we can conclude that $f$ is integrable over $V$ because it's integrable over $\overline{V}=V\cup\partial V$).
Thanks.