I realised yesterday (to my slight embarrassment) that I don't understand how the simplest Hodge numbers $h^{0,q}(X)$ and $h^{q,0}(X)$ behave when $X$ is singular. But I am sure the M.SE community can set me straight!
Let's stick to normal projective varieties over $\mathbf{C}$.
Question 1: for such a variety $X$, is the "conjugation symmetry" $h^{0,q}=h^{q,0}$ still true? The standard explanation for this (or rather the more general symmetry $h^{p,q}=h^{q,p}$) in the nonsingular case uses the complex of $(p,q)$-forms; it isn't clear to me why it should be true in the singular case, although I admit I haven't thought about it much.
Question 2: are the Hodge numbers $h^{0,q}(X)= \mathrm{dim}_\mathbf{C} \, H^q(X,\mathcal{O}_X)$ birational invariants of normal projective varieties? That is, if $X$ is normal and $Y \rightarrow X$ is a birational morphism from a nonsingular variety, is it true that $h^{0,q}(X)=h^{0,q}(Y)$? This is true for $X$ nonsingular, but the proof I know uses the symmetry from Question 1. I think there is a proof via the composite functor spectral sequence if $X$ has rational singularities (although I didn't check carefully). Again, I don't see a reason it should be true in general, but I don't know a counterexample.