I have the following function, which I am supposed to evaluate:
$\lim_{x \to 0}{\frac{(e^{-x^2}-1)\sin x}{x \ln (1+x^2)}}$
My though is to replace sin x by its Maclaurin polynomial, as such:
$\lim_{x \to 0}{\frac{(e^{-x^2}-1)(x+ O(x^3))}{x \ln (1+x^2)}}$
From here I think I should be able to simplify the denominator, divide everything by x, derivate according to l'Hopital's rule, and get the final result of -1. I'm just not quite sure if this is allowed.
First of all, what happens when I multiply $e^{-x^2}$ by $O(x^3)$ in the denominator? And what happens when I derivate $O(x^3)$? Is there a better strategy?