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I try to understand an argument on page 358 of Hartshorne, proof of Lemma V.1.2. Consider a surface X, irreducible curves $C_i $on X and a very ample divisor D. Hartshorne says that since the intersections $C_i \cap D$ are nonsingular, the $C_i$ and $D\,'$ meet transversally.

My questions:

  1. How does this implication follow?
  2. Should this read $C_i \cap D \,'$ instead of $C_i \cap D$?

Thanks in advance!

claudi
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1 Answers1

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First of all, he picks $D'$ to be some nonsingular curve in the linear system $|D|$. The intersection $C_i\cap D'$ is ment scheme-theoretically. If the intersection is nonsingular, this means that the local rings of each point in that dimension zero scheme are regular points. A regular local ring of dimension zero is a field, so the scheme $C_i\cap D'$ has no embedded points. Differently put, let $U=\mathrm{Spec}(A)$ be an affine neighbourhood of the intersection point containing none of the others. By going more local, assume that $C_i$ is defined on $U$ by $f\in A$ and $D'$ is defined on $U$ by $g\in A$. Then, the local ring at the scheme-theoretic intersection point is $A/(f,g)$, which we have seen to be a field, so $f$ and $g$ generate the maximal ideal of the (reduced) intersection point - that's Hartshorne's definition of transversal intersection.

  • First of all thanks for your answer! I don't quite understand your third sentence "If the intersection is nonsingular, this means that the local rings of each point in that dimension zero scheme are regular points." Did you mean "the local rings of each point in that dimension zero scheme are regular"? – claudi Oct 18 '13 at 08:06
  • Errr. yes of course. Let me fix that. – Jesko Hüttenhain Oct 18 '13 at 08:21