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Prove or provide a counterexample: if $f$ and $g$ are real convex positive functions on some intervals, then $f(x)g(y)$ is convex.

user1551
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  • I think if you throw in the assumption that theyr'e also increasing, the product is convex (?). This is a standard theorem in any text on convex analysis. – Stefan Smith Oct 18 '13 at 00:00

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$f(x)=x$, $g(x)=1-x$ is a counterexample on $[0,1]$.

vadim123
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Since $(fg)''=f''g+2f'g'+fg''$ it's sufficient for $fg$ to be convex that additionally $f'g'\geq0$, i.e., both are decreasing or both are increasing.

Michael Hoppe
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