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A number 'r' is prime if and only if $\binom{r-1}{k} \equiv(-1)^k \pmod r$

Since 'r' is a prime and it gives non-zero remainder by dividing $\binom{r-1}{k}$ .

So $\binom{r-1}{k}$ and 'r' are co-primes

If a0,a1,a2,a3,..........,ar-1 are coprimes to r .

Then

Is $\binom{r-1}{0}$a0+$\binom{r-1}{1}$a1+$\binom{r-1}{2}$a2+......+$\binom{r-1}{k}$ak+......+$\binom{r-1}{r-1}$ar-1

coprime to r ?

hanugm
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1 Answers1

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No, let $r=3,a_1=4$ and $a_0=a_2=5$ then $a_k$ is coprime to $r$, but $$ 5\binom20 +4\binom21+5\binom22=18=r^22\;. $$

draks ...
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