Up to isomorphism, I think there exist only two line bundles of the circle: the trivial bundle (diffeomorphic to a cylinder) and a bundle that looks like to a Möbius band. Although it seems obvious geometrically I did not find a good argument to justify it. Do you have an idea?
3 Answers
I'll show how the powerful (but sophisticated) theory of sheaves permits one to classify real line bundles on a paracompact topological space.
This will delight algebraic geometers and maybe motivate others to learn that theory.
Let $\mathcal C^*$ (resp. $\mathcal C^*_+)$ denote the sheaf of continuous nowhere zero functions (resp. sheaf of continuous positive functions) on a paracompact space $X$.
The exact sequence $ 0\to \mathcal C^*_+\to \mathcal C^*\stackrel {\text {sign}}\to \mathbb Z/2\mathbb Z\to0$ gives rise to a long exact sequence in cohomology of which a fragment is $$ \cdots \to H^1(X,\mathcal C^*_+) \to H^1(X,\mathcal C^*) \to H^1(X,\mathbb Z/2\mathbb Z)\to H^2(X,\mathcal C^*_+) \to\cdots$$
Now we have an isomorphism of sheaves $\mathcal C^*_+ \stackrel {\log} {\cong}\mathcal C$ and thus $\mathcal C^*_+$ is acyclic because $\mathcal C$ is acyclic (since it is a fine sheaf by paracompactness of $X$).
In particular $H^1(X,\mathcal C^*_+) = H^2(X,\mathcal C^*_+)=0$
so that the above cohomological fragment reduces to $ 0 \to H^1(X,\mathcal C^*) \to H^1(X,\mathbb Z/2\mathbb Z)\to 0 $ and since $H^1(X,\mathcal C^*)$ classifies line bundles on $X$ we get the result that line bundles on $X$ are classified by $H^1(X,\mathbb Z/2\mathbb Z)$.
In the differential geometry category the analogous result holds with $\mathcal C$ replaced by $\mathcal C^\infty$.
This yields the astonishing result that on a manifold each continuous line bundle has one and only one differential structure (up to isomorphism).
Finally, for the circle $H^1(S^1,\mathbb Z/2\mathbb Z)=\mathbb Z/2\mathbb Z$ and this proves your result.
Remark
The main reason I am posting this proof is for my record: I have never seen it in a reference and I want to be able to retrieve it in the probable case that I forget it!
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Dear Georges, you wrote $H^1(X,\mathcal E^)$ in the last sequence but you meant $H^1(X,\mathcal C^)$. – Philippe Malot Oct 18 '13 at 22:43
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Dear @ girianshiido: you are absolutely right. This was a residue of a first version where I worked in the category of smooth manifolds and $\mathcal E$ meant $\mathcal C^\infty $. It is corrected now and I thank you very much for your vigilance. – Georges Elencwajg Oct 18 '13 at 22:48
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You're welcome. I think I saw another minor error. Tell me if I'm wrong : you wrote " ... $\mathcal C$ is acyclic (since it is a fine sheaf by paracompactness of $X$)". I would have written " (since it is a fine sheaf and by paracompactness of $X$)" instead. – Philippe Malot Oct 18 '13 at 23:19
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Dear @ girianshiido: I don't think there is an error, even minor, in what I wrote: a) $\mathcal C$ is fine because $X$ is paracompact b) fine sheaves are acyclic. Which of these two assertions do you think contains a "minor error" ? That you "would have written" something else does not mean that I made a mistake. – Georges Elencwajg Oct 18 '13 at 23:54
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Dear Georges, I knew a) but I thought b) was wrong in general. I guess the paracompactness of a topological space is a reasonable requirement to study fine sheaves on it. I see no problem with your message, after all! – Philippe Malot Oct 19 '13 at 09:02
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Dear @girianshiido, I'm happy we completely agree now. – Georges Elencwajg Oct 19 '13 at 10:04
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Dear @GeorgesElencwajg, isn't that essentially the same answer as mine? (Not that I mind at all! You always explain very well.) – Bruno Joyal Oct 19 '13 at 19:08
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Dear @Marie, no, I don't think so. You don't seem to mention acyclicity of fine sheaves, which is key to my argument. In general I usually prefer to abstain from discussions on whether two arguments are "essentially" the same. But of course in this case I agree that all presentations of the classification of line bundles on a circle will have a family feeling! – Georges Elencwajg Oct 19 '13 at 20:30
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@GeorgesElencwajg Granted! I will think about it. In any case, thanks for your nice answer! – Bruno Joyal Oct 19 '13 at 20:43
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@GeorgesElencwajg I have a related question here namely "question 2" in my post. Somehow, I cannot get the coefficients right, but I feel strongly that there is a method similar to the one you employed here to get the thing to work using some sequence $0 \to \mathbb Z \to C^+ \to C^* \to 0$ instead, I think via the map $\mathrm{exp}$, which should have the right kernel, but I'm not familiar with the notion of sheaves. Is there some dictionary I can use? – Andres Mejia Jul 25 '18 at 01:06
Line bundles are classified by the first Čech cohomology with coefficients in $\text{GL}^1(\mathbf R)$. By normalizing we can actually use coefficients in $\text{O}^1(\mathbf R)=\pm 1$. By using the usual covering of the circle, one sees immediately that this cohomology group is cyclic of order $2$, generated by the class of the Möbius strip.
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Dear @Marie: I think perhaps you need to delete the letter 'S' in the second line. – Oct 18 '13 at 20:57
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Dear @AsalBeagDubh Thank you. I always get my algebraic groups confused! – Bruno Joyal Oct 18 '13 at 21:00
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@BrunoJoyal: I do not know Cech cohomology but I am very interested by your answer. Can you recommend some reference? – Seirios Dec 01 '13 at 10:04
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@Seirios Sure! I really like Bott & Tu's Differential forms in algebraic topology, for this and many other topics. – Bruno Joyal Dec 01 '13 at 15:35
Here is the sketch of an elementary proof:
Let $E \overset{\pi}{\longrightarrow} \mathbb{S}^1$ be a line bundle and $p : \mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{S}^1$ be the usual universal covering.
- Let $F= \coprod\limits_{x \in \mathbb{R}} E_{p(x)}$ be a line bundle $F \overset{q}{\longrightarrow} \mathbb{R}$ defined by the local trivializations $\varphi= (p_{|V}^{-1} \times \operatorname{Id}) \circ \phi \circ (p \times \operatorname{Id})$ where $\phi$ is a local trivialization for $E \overset{\pi}{\longrightarrow} \mathbb{S}^1$ and $V$ is an elementary neighborhood of the overing $\mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{S}^1$. Then $p \times \operatorname{Id} : F \to E$ is a morphism.
- Because $\mathbb{R}$ is contractible, every vector bundle on it is trivial (see here). Let $\psi : F \to \mathbb{R} \times \mathbb{R}$ be a global trivialization.
- Notice that $(p \circ \operatorname{Id}) \circ \psi$ defines a surjective smooth map between $[0,2\pi] \times \mathbb{R}$ and $E$, injective on $[0,2\pi) \times \mathbb{R}$. Moreover, it induces linear isomorphisms $f_1 : \{2\pi\} \times \mathbb{R} \to E_0$ and $f_0 : \{0\} \times \mathbb{R} \to E_0$. For convenience, let $f= f_2^{-1} \circ f_1$.
- We deduce the diffeomorphism $$E \simeq [0,2\pi] \times \mathbb{R} / \{ f(2\pi,x) \simeq (0,x) \}.$$ Without loss of generality, we may normalize $f$ so that $f= \operatorname{Id}$ or $f=- \operatorname{Id}$. Therefore, two cases happen: either $$E \simeq [0,2\pi] \times \mathbb{R} / \{(0,x) \sim (2\pi,x) \} \simeq \mathcal{C},$$ or $$E \simeq [0,2\pi] \times \mathbb{R} / \{(0,x) \sim (2\pi,-x) \} \simeq \mathbb{M}.$$
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1This comment is mainly for my own future reference: I was a bit confused by the bundle constructed in (1) until I realized it is the same thing as the pullback bundle of $E$ via the universal cover $p:\mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{S}^1$. Nice proof! – Matthew Kvalheim Jan 18 '17 at 23:33