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I came across a proof exercise from my proof work-book that I am stuck on.

The questions says:

Suppose we have angle PQR with P, Q, and R non-collinear, and ray QS distinct from ray QR such that angle PQS is congruent to angle PQR. Prove that if angle PQT is congruent to angle PQR, then either ray QT = ray QR or ray QT = ray QS.

From the question I was able to get that angle PQS is congruent to angle PQS is congruent to angle PQR. I am not sure where to go from here or what theorems to use.

Any help would be greatly appreciated.

Thanks in advance,

Michael

1 Answers1

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We'll assume given a line segment PQ, and three distinct rays QR, QS, and QT, each making the same angle $x$ with PQ; we'll show this leads to a contradiction.

We'll assume $x$ is not a right angle; we'll come back to deal with that case later.

There's a line L through P, parallel to QR. This line meets the ray QS at U, and it meets the ray QT at V (this is where we need the assumption that $x$ is not a right angle). $\angle QPU=\angle PQU=x$, and $\angle QPV=\angle PQV=x$, so $\angle PUQ=\angle PVQ$. So line segments QU and QV make the same angle with line L, so these line segments are parallel. But that's impossible, since they meet at Q.

Now if $x$ is a right angle, then the line L through P parallel to QR can't meet either of the rays QS and QT --- if it did, you'd get a triangle with two right angles. So QR, QS, and QT are all rays through Q parallel to L. But that says there are (at least) two lines through Q parallel to L, which contradicts the parallel postulate, and we're done.

Gerry Myerson
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