I have a problem understanding the following proof that claims a surjection. The text is translated from a german university textbook by Luise Unger (pardon any translation errors by me, please).
Given $$f: \mathbb{R} \times \mathbb{R} \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$$ $$f((x,y)) = x+y, \text{for all} (x,y) \in \mathbb{R} \times \mathbb{R} $$
then $f$ is surjective, because if $z \in \mathbb{R}$, then $(0,z) \in \mathbb{R}\times\mathbb{R}$, and it is $f((0,z)) = 0+z = z$. Therefore, every $z\in\mathbb{R}$ has a fiber under $f$.
I understand the principle of surjective functions (that every value in the codomain is "reachable" through $f$). However, I don't understand how the truth of the special case $f((0,z))$ explains the truth of the (whole) surjection; or is that proof incorrect or incomplete?