We have $X_i=0$ precisely if all $12$ balls miss Bin $i$. The probability that any particular ball misses Bin $i$ is $\frac{7}{8}$. So the probability they all miss is $\left(\frac{7}{8}\right)^{12}$.
To find the probability that $X_i=1$, note that this means that one ball lands in Bin $i$, and the rest don't. The ball that hits can be chosen in $\binom{12}{1}$ ways. The probability that it hits is $\frac{1}{8}$. The probability that the rest miss is $\left(\frac{7}{8}\right)^{11}$. Thus the probability that $X_i=1$ is $\binom{12}{1}\left(\frac{1}{8}\right)\left(\frac{7}{8}\right)^{11}$.
The number $X_i$ of balls that land in Bin $i$ is given by
$$X_i=T_{i,1}+T_{i,2}+\cdots+T_{i,12}.\tag{1}$$
Using the fact that the expectation of a sum is the sum of the expectations, we find from (1) that
$$E(X_i)=\sum_{j=1}^{12}E(T_{i,j}).$$
But each $T_{i,j}$ has mean $\frac{1}{8}$. It follows that $E(X_i)=\frac{12}{8}$.
For the variance of $X_i$, use the fact that the $T_{i,j}$ are independent, and therefore the variance of their sum $X_i$ is the sum of the variances. The variance of any $T_{i,j}$ is not difficult to compute, since $T_{i,j}=1$ with probability $\frac{1}{8}$, and $0$ with probability $\frac{7}{8}$.
Remark: The random variable $X_i$ has binomial distribution. So you can find the mean and variance of $X_i$ by appealing to standard results. However, the fact that the $T_{i,j}$ were introduced probably means they were intended to be used to derive the formulas for mean and variance, at least for this particular choice of parameters $p=\frac{1}{8}$, $n=12$.
It is possible that you were not supposed to appeal to the result that the variance of an independent sum is the sum of the variances. In that case, you will have to find $E(X_i^2)$ by expanding $(T_{i,1}+T_{i,2}+\cdots +T_{i,12})^2$. Slightly messy, you get the $E(T_{i,j}^2)$, which are no problem, and cross-terms $E(T_{i,j}T_{i,k})=E(T_{i,j})E(T_{i,k})$, which are no problem either, except you have to keep track of how many there are.