I am stuck with the following problem :
I did integration by parts which gives the result $\,\,f'(1)$.
Can someone explain? Thanks in advance for your time.
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Can you think of a reason that $f\,'(1)=f\,'(0)$?
Empy2
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Yes ,I can. It comes from the fact that $,,f(x+1)=f(x) \implies f'(x+1)=f'(x).$ But how can I use this result to have a conclusion? – learner Oct 23 '13 at 11:58
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@learner Because $f'(0)$ is one of the options. You know that the answer is $f'(1)$, and you know that $f'(1) = f'(0)$, thus that would be the correct alternative. – Arthur Oct 23 '13 at 12:03
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@Arthur thanks a lot..Got it... – learner Oct 23 '13 at 12:12