If $g\circ f$ is injective, what can you say about injectivity of $f$ and $g$? I tried but cannot able to get to the solution. Please help.
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If $g\circ f$ is injective then $f$ should be injective as well.
Proof:
First we recall the definition of an injective function. We say that a function h ś injective if $$\forall a,b (\; h(a) = h(b) \; \Rightarrow a = b \; )$$
Suppose $g\circ f$ is injective.
We want to prove that f is injective.
Let a and b such that $$f(a) = f(b)$$
So, we have:
$$g\circ f(a) = g\circ f(b)$$.
As $g\circ f$ is injective, then we can conclude that:
$$ a=b $$.
So, $f$ is necessarily injective.
learner
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user103074
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HINT: One of the function has to be injective, the other doesn't. Look at the case where $f$ is not surjective.
Asaf Karagila
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2upvote for giving a hint and not the whole answer – Stefan Smith Oct 26 '13 at 02:07