I do believe it's dummy question, but I would be grateful if one explains me why following generating function is valid. I'm novice in the topic and intuitively I can't understand why it's true. It's well known OGF with 1, 1, 1, .... is generating function for
$\frac{1}{(1-x)} = 1 + x^2 + x^3 + ... + x^n = \sum_{i=0}^\infty x^i$
it's easily proved by
$A = 1 + x + x^2... = 1 + x(1 + x + x^2...) = 1 + x*A$
The question is how to validate it using the real numbers. Suppose we have $x = 10$ then
$\frac{1}{1 - 10} = \frac{1}{-9} = 1 + 10 + 100 + 1000... $ which doesn't seem to be true.
Could you please point me to the error in my conclusions?