Question:
a. Find an example for a non-negative and continuous function s.t. $\int _0^\infty f(x)dx$ is finite but the following limit doesn't exist: $\lim_{x\to \infty} f(x)$.
b. Is it possible that $\int _0^\infty f(x)dx$ is bounded but $f(x)$ is not bounded?
What we did with A: We suggested the function $|sin(x^2)|$ which has periods that get smaller and smaller until they no longer imply on the sum. But since it's a trig function it doesn't have a determinate limit. Wolfram didn't have the integral value for that func, and we were wondering if it really converges and if it is really a good example.
What we did with B: We thought about the function: $f(x)= { x\in \Bbb N },{e^{-x} \notin \Bbb N }$ and we had a disagreement whether f(x) is integrable. I said no because similarly to Dirichlet function, one sum's limit will be 0 while the other one's will be infinite. My partner said that if I find a $\delta<1$ then the definition of Riemann's integral does hold and so this integral is equal to that of $f(x)=e^{-x}$ She was trying to say this functions integral will be 0, but still it won't be bounded. I disagreed. Who's right?