Sorry but I have a problem I am student in first year in economics. I don't have enough knowledge on integration.
I want to compute this integral, for $a>2$, $a>i>0$, $b\in R$ and $d\in R$.
\begin{equation*} \int_{0}^{1} (\ln(p))^{a-i} (\ln(1-p))^{i} \left[ (\frac{p^{2}}{2})- b p+( \frac{b^{2}}{2} + d)\right] dp \end{equation*}
It will be great if you can detail the proof.