4

Give an example of an infinite collection $A_n $ of intervals such that $A_{n+1} \subset A_n$ and $\bigcap^{\infty}_{n=1} A_n = \varnothing$.

I have come to the following collection of intervals, but dont know if it is correct nor how to prove it. $A_n = \left(0, \frac{1}{n^2}\right)$. How do I prove my example works?

EDIT: The intervals are on the real line!

3 Answers3

1

if $x \leq 0$, $x$ belongs to none of the sets. If $x>0$, take $n \in \mathbb{N}^+$ with $x > 1/n^2$. Then $x$ does not belong to $\mathcal{A}_n$, so $x$ does not belong to the intersection.

Stefan Smith
  • 8,192
0

HINT: The set containing sequences of $\frac{1}{n}$ approaching 1 as its limit (BUT IT DOESN'T CONTAIN $1$) from the LHS and the RHS. The answer to the sequence contained in your metric space is below.

$$S = \{1 - \frac{1}{n}\} \bigcup \{1 + \frac{1}{n}\} : n \in \mathbb{N}$$

Generally, just unite two open sets, and don't include their limit point (This could make it closed and have a nonempty intersection).

If you know about separability, just make sure the intersection contains none of the sets closures!

Don Larynx
  • 4,703
0

a(n)=[n,+∞)

so An+1⊂An

n=1⋂∞ An=∅

Khosrotash
  • 24,922