Give an example of an infinite collection $A_n $ of intervals such that $A_{n+1} \subset A_n$ and $\bigcap^{\infty}_{n=1} A_n = \varnothing$.
I have come to the following collection of intervals, but dont know if it is correct nor how to prove it. $A_n = \left(0, \frac{1}{n^2}\right)$. How do I prove my example works?
EDIT: The intervals are on the real line!
\varnothing. – Brian M. Scott Nov 03 '13 at 15:32