I have a cumulative distribution function $\displaystyle{% F(x) = \left\lbrace% \begin{array}{ll} 0\,, & \mbox{for}\ x<1 \\[1mm] {1 \over 2}\,\left(x^{2} - 2x + 2\right)\,, & \mbox{for}\ 1 \leq x < 2 \\[1mm] 1\,, & \mbox{for}\ x \geq 2 \end{array}\right.}$
and I'm asked to find the variance for $X$. So when I took the derivative of the CDF I found that $f(x)=\begin{cases}\frac12 \quad \text{for $x=1$}\\ x-1\quad \text{for $1\lt x\lt 2$}\end{cases}$. I understand where the $x-1$ and it's bounds come from, but how does one go about solving for that "jump" at the lower bound where $f(1)=\frac12$. After playing around with the solutions I finally figured it out but I'm not sure how I would have realized that right away. Would I simply just integrate $x-1$ over it's bounds to see if it equals one? I've seen this kind of problem before and I'm trying to avoid making the mistake of leaving the "jump" out. Should I always just integrate over the bounds of a pdf to make sure it equals one everytime? Or is there a way to tell there is a "jump"?