I seem to be stumped on this question. For the setting, let $R$ be an integral domain and let $r, s, t \in R$. The question asks
Show that $r \gcd(s, t)$ is associate to $\gcd (rs, rt)$
To start, let $d$ be some $\gcd$ of $s$ and $t$, and let $\overline{d}$ be some $\gcd$ of $rs$ and $rt$. Since $d \mid s$ and $d \mid t$, we see that $rd \mid rs$ and $rd \mid rt$. By definition, then $rd \mid \overline{d}$. It is here that I am stuck. I would like to show that $\overline{d} \mid rd$ to conclude that $rd$ and $\overline{d}$ are associate, but I cannot see how to get there. I know that I can write $s = di$ and $t = dj$ for some $i, j \in R$. I can also write $rt = \overline{d}n$ and $rs = \overline{d}m$ for some $m, n \in R$. But all this gets me is $rd(i-j) = \overline{d}(m-n)$, which is not quite what I am after. Any helpful hints would be greatly appreciated.