I've already shown the existence of a homeomorphism between the open unit disc and $\mathbb{R}^2$ and now I'm trying to work out whether the closed unit disc is homeomorphic to $\mathbb{R}^2$ or not. Clearly the only real difference is the fact it includes the points actually on the circle, but because the continuous, invertible, bijective map I defined for the open disc was $\dfrac{x}{1-|x|}$ this clearly is not defined for the points on the line.
Intuitively I'm thinking it's not possible to form a homeomorphism with the closed disk precisely because of these points on the circle but can't really form a decent argument. I was thinking along the lines of showing that the non-open, closed subset $\bar{D}(0,1) \backslash D(0,1)$ (which is just the set of points on the actual circle i.e the boundary/frontier of the closed disk) can't possibly bijectively map to a closed subset of $\mathbb{R}^2$ - which clearly would have to be the case in a homeomorphism.
Any advice would be greatly appreciated.