Let $S^1$ be the unit sphere $x_1^2+x_2^2=1$ in $\mathbb{R}^2$ and let $X=S^1\times S^1\in\mathbb{R}^4$ with defining equations $f_1=x_1^2+x_2^2-1=0, f_2=x_3^2+x_4^2-1=0$. Show that the vector field $$w=x_1\frac\partial{\partial x_2}-x_2\frac\partial{\partial x_1}+\lambda\left(x_4\frac\partial{\partial x_3}-x_3\frac\partial{\partial x_4}\right)$$ ($\lambda\in\mathbb{R}$) is tangent to $X$ and hence defines by restriction a vector field $v$ on $X$.
What does "defines by restriction" mean here? $w$ is already a vector field. Does it just mean that the vector field $v$ is the same one but restricted from $\mathbb{R}^4$ to $X$? Then we don't need this vector field to be tangent to $X$ in order to define the restriction, do we? (Note the use of the word "hence" in the problem statement.)
EDIT: This is the definition of a vector field I'm using: A vector field on an open set $U\in\mathbb{R}^n$ is a function $v$ which assigns to each point $p\in U$ a vector $v(p)$ in the tangent space $T_p\mathbb{R}^n$. The tangent space $T_p\mathbb{R}^n$ is just the set of pairs of the form $(p,v)$, where $v\in\mathbb{R}^n$. From this definition, it would seem we always obtain a vector field on $X$, don't we?
EDIT 2: I think I see where I'm going wrong now. The above definition works only on an open set $U$. Here $X$ is not an open set, so we need the vector $v(p)$ to be in the tangent space $T_pX$.