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From this question on answers.yahoo, the guy says the following limit does not exist: $$\lim_{(x,y) \to (0,0)} \frac{xy^4}{x^2 + y^8},$$ then on wolfram, it says the limit is equal to $0$. When I did it myself, I tried approaching $(0,0)$ from the $x$-axis, $y$-axis, $y=x$, $y=x^2$. They all equal $0$.

But when I tried the squeeze theorem, I got $y^8 \leq x^2 + y^8$, therefore $0 \leq |xy^4/(x^2+y^8)| \leq |\dfrac{x}{y^4}|$, and the latter does not exist for $(x, y) \to (0,0)$.

So does the original limit exist or not? I'm getting contradicting information from various sources. Also, if it doesn't exist (it looks like it doesn't... I think), how would I go about proving that it doesn't?

Maethor
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Gary Choi
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3 Answers3

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Approaching $(0,0)$ along the curve $x=y^4$ you get

$$ \frac{xy^4}{x^2+y^8} = \frac{y^8}{y^8 + y^8} = \frac12 $$

which clearly does not tend to $0$ as $y \to 0$. Since you get different values along different paths, the limit doesn't exist.

mrf
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Hint: let $x=ky^4(k\neq 0)$,so $$\lim_{(x,y)\to(0,0)}\dfrac{xy^4}{x^2+y^8}=\dfrac{k}{k^2+1}$$

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$a=x,b=y^4=>\lim_{(0,0)}\frac{ab}{a^2+b^2}=\lim_{(0,0)}\frac{a/b}{(a/b)^2+1}=$ Indeterminate, since for instance we could have various ratios between x and $y^4$ as they both approach $0$.

Lucian
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