An exercise asks me to prove that given the function
$$f(\omega) = \frac{\omega^TQ\omega}{2}$$
where $Q$ is invertible, the conjugate function $f^*(\theta) = \sup_{\omega} \left(\langle \omega,\theta \rangle - f(\omega)\right)$ is
$$f^*(\theta) = \frac{\theta^TQ^{-1}\theta}{2}.$$
I tried to find the $\sup$ taking the point that makes the gradient equal to zero, that is
$$\theta - \frac{1}{2}(Q + Q^T)\omega = 0 \Rightarrow \omega = 2(Q + Q^T)^{-1}\theta $$
that can be substituted and gives
$$ f^*(\theta) = \langle 2(Q + Q^T)^{-1}\theta,\theta \rangle - 2\theta^T(Q + Q^T)^{-T}Q(Q + Q^T)^{-1}\theta $$ and then $$ f^*(\theta) = 2\theta^T(Q + Q^T)^{-T}\theta - 2\theta^T(Q + Q^T)^{-T}Q(Q + Q^T)^{-1}\theta = 2\theta^T(Q + Q^T)^{-T} \left(I - Q(Q + Q^T)^{-1} \right)\theta $$
but at that point I get stuck and do not know how to go further. Does anybody has something to suggest or can see an error?