I have a vector $x = (..., x_{-1}, x_0, x_1, ...)$ and a vector $w = (..., 0, 0, 1, 1, .. , 1, 1, 0, 0, ..)$ (with $2M + 1$ components equals to 1) such that
$y = x \cdot w = (0, 0, .., x_{-M},x_{-M + 1}, .., x_{M-1}, x_M, 0, 0, ..) $ (product cordinate by cordinate, ie, $y_k = x_kw_k$ for all $k \in \mathbb{Z}$).
All these vectors are in $L^2(\mathbb{Z})$.
I can prove that the discret time Fourier transform of $y$, named, $Y(f)$, is $Y(f) = X(f) * W(f)$ where $*$ denotes the convolution
and I can show too that $W(f) = \frac{\sin{((2M + 1)\pi f)}}{\sin{(\pi f)}}$.
Now, I need to prove that when $M$ goes to infinity, $Y(f)$ converges to $X(f)$.
The book gives the follow hint:
$$\lim_{R \rightarrow \infty} \int_{-\frac{1}{2}}^{\frac{1}{2}} \frac{\sin(R\pi x) \phi(x)}{\sin(\pi x)} dx = \phi(0) $$
But I don't know how to use it. If I made $\phi(f) = X(f)$ and put $Y(f)$ into the integral I don't arrive in any place.
I hope you could help me.
Thank you.