I'm trying to prove that if $T$ is a normal operator, then null $T^k$ = null $T$ and range $T^k$ = range $T$. Showing null $T$ $\subset$ null $T^k$ is simple, so I'm working on the other inclusion. So far I've been able to deduce that for a vector $v \in$ null $T^k$ we have $TT^\star v = T^\star Tv$ $\implies$ $T^k T^\star v = T^\star T^k v$ $\implies$ $T^k T^\star v = 0$ $\implies$ $T^\star v \in$ null $T^k$. I'm not sure if this is useful though, and I'm stuck on where I should go from here.
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1Do you have an inner-product floating around to use? – Tom Nov 20 '13 at 23:47
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I tried constructing some using various combinations of operators such as $T^{k-1} T^\star T$, but I couldn't find one that was very helpful. – Danny Nov 20 '13 at 23:51
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By $T^k$ do you mean the $T$ to the $k$-th power? – Hayden Nov 20 '13 at 23:51
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@Hayden yes I do – Danny Nov 20 '13 at 23:52
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@Danny Are you working over finite dimensions? – Tom Nov 21 '13 at 00:07
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@Tom $V$ is a non-zero, finite-dimensional inner-product space. – Danny Nov 21 '13 at 01:11
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You may try using the notion of Moore-Penrose inverse. – AnyAD Nov 21 '13 at 01:31
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I know it is overkill but: the spectral theorem for normal operators makes that trivial. – Julien Nov 21 '13 at 02:48
3 Answers
First for $S$ self-adjoint: suppose $S^kx = 0$. Then
$$0 = \langle S^{k}x, S^{k-2}x \rangle = \langle S^{k-1}x, S^{k-1}x\rangle$$
so by positive definiteness of inner product, $S^{k-1}x = 0$, and we can continue down to $Sx=0$.
If $T$ is normal, suppose $T^kx=0$. Then
$$ (T^*T)^kx = (T^*)^k (T^kx) = 0$$
(The key is $(T^*T)^k = (T^*)^k T^k$ since $T$ is normal). So by the first part (since $T^*T$ is self adjoint)
$$0 = \langle T^* Tx, x \rangle = \langle Tx, Tx \rangle$$
so $Tx = 0$.
To show $\operatorname{Rg}(T^k)=\operatorname{Rg}(T)$, note using the above result,
$$\operatorname{Rg}(T^k) = \operatorname{Ker}((T^k)^*)^\perp = \operatorname{Ker}((T^*)^k)^\perp\\ = \operatorname{Ker}(T^*)^\perp = \operatorname{Rg}(T).$$
Comment: this says that any normal operator has the same kernel as any of its powers. If $T$ is normal, then $T-\lambda I$ is normal, which shows that $(T-\lambda I)^kx = 0 \Rightarrow (T-\lambda I)x=0$. This shows that any normal operator in finite dimensions is diagonalizable over $\mathbb{C}$. Some short additional work is needed to show it is orthogonally diagonalizable.
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Nicely done. Nitpick: if $T^kx=0$, then $(T^T)^kx=(T^)^kT^kx=0$. Hence $T^Tx=0$ by the first part etc... You only said that $\langle (T^T)^kx,x\rangle =0$, which does not obviously imply $(T^*T)^kx=0$. – Julien Nov 21 '13 at 02:41
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Quite right, I appreciate the nitpick actually. That is an important detail. Edited. – Eric Auld Nov 21 '13 at 03:45
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Sorry for the late response. Could you explain why $\langle S^k x, S^{k-2} x \rangle = \langle S^{k-1} x, S^{k-1} x \rangle$? Also, how do you know that $T^\star T$ is self-adjoint? – Danny Nov 24 '13 at 18:38
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1@Danny First question: the definition of the adjoint is that $\langle Ax, x \rangle = \langle x, A^x \rangle$. But by assumption, $S^ = S$. So just move one of the $S$ over to the right side. Second question: two well-known properties of the adjoint are that $(AB)^* = B^* A^$ and $(A^{})^* = A$. Therefore $(T^* T)^* = T^(T^{})^{} = T^T$. You can find this material in any linear algebra book. For a first text I recommend Strang's Linear Algebra and its Applications; for a more advanced text I recommend Roman's Advanced Linear Algebra. – Eric Auld Nov 24 '13 at 19:13
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1@Danny More explicitly, $\langle S^kx, S^{k-2}x\rangle = \langle S(S^{k-1}x), S^{k-2}x \rangle = \langle S^{k-1}x, S^*(S^{k-2}x)\rangle = \langle S^{k-1}x, S(S^{k-2}x) \rangle = \langle S^{k-1}x, S^{k-1}x \rangle$. – Eric Auld Nov 24 '13 at 19:19
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1Thanks for the answer. I suppose T^k=0 should be T^kx = 0, I could not edit due to minimum character limit. – unlut Nov 23 '18 at 20:36
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I'm not sure this is correct.
$T$ is normal $\implies$ $\ker T = \ker T^*$ $\implies$ $\ker T = (\operatorname{range} T) ^\perp$.
Now use induction: $\ker T^{k+1} = \{v: Tv \in \ker T^k\} = \{v: Tv \in \ker T\}$ (by the induction hypothesis).
So, $v \in \ker T^{k+1}$ implies that $Tv \in \ker T$; since $Tv \in \operatorname{range} T$ trivially, and $\ker T \perp \operatorname{range} T$, it follows that $Tv=0$, i.e. $v \in \ker T$. So $\ker T^{k+1} \subseteq \ker T$, the opposite inclusion being trivial.
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Welcome to MSE. For some basic information about writing mathematics at this site see, e.g., basic help on mathjax notation, mathjax tutorial and quick reference, main meta site math tutorial and equation editing how-to. – José Carlos Santos Mar 30 '24 at 10:17
Let $T^{k}v=0$. Then
$(T^*T)^kv=0$ and
$[(T^*T)^\dagger T^*T]^kx=0$.
Then $T^*Tx=0$ and so $Tx=0$, premultiplying both sides with Moore-Penrose inverse of $T^*$.
(Note that Moore-Penrose inverse of a self adjoint element commutes with that element.)
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