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I'm looking for a function like that f(x,y) not equal to f(y,x) for all integers and result must be integer also.

Thank you,

seleucia
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2 Answers2

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Impossible because, for any integre $n$, the equality $f(x=n,y=n)=f(y=n,x=n)$ is in contradiction to the condition $f(x,y)$ not equal $f(y,x)$.

JJacquelin
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  • Thanks correcting me actually i found solution

    http://stackoverflow.com/questions/919612/mapping-two-integers-to-one-in-a-unique-and-deterministic-way

     – seleucia Nov 21 '13 at 18:40
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Assuming you avoid the problem that $f(x,x)=f(x,x)$, how about $f(x,y)=x-y$?

Ross Millikan
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