Let $0 < a< 1$. Solving
$$\frac{1+c_{n+1}}{c_n}=a$$
yields
$$c_{n+1}=ac_n-1$$
Define $c_1= \alpha$ and $c_{n+1}=ac_n-1$ , where $\alpha$ is well chosen (*).
Then by construction
$$\left( \frac{1+c_{n+1}}{c_n} \right)^n=a^n \,.$$
So your sup limit is actually a limit, and is $0$.
Now, there is something subtle which we have to be careful with, and here is where $(*)$ comes in play:
We have to make sure that $c_n \neq 0$ for all $n$, otherwise we don't have $\frac{1+a_{n+1}}{a_n}=a$. Using the recurrence, if $c_n=0$ you can calculate backwards $c_{n-1},..,c_1$ (or show that there is no value of $c_i$ which leads to $c_n=0$) . Thus, you can prove that for each $n$ there is at most a value of $\alpha$ such that $c_n=0$.
This shows that there are at most countably many values of $\alpha$ which make a $c_n=0$. Picking any of the remaining uncountably many reals will do the trick.