Let $(x_n)_{n \in \mathbf{N}}$ be a sequence of real numbers, we say that $(x_n)$ is uniformly distributed mod 1 (u.d. mod 1) if
$$\lim_{N \to \infty} \frac{|\{1\leq n \leq N : (x_n -\lfloor x_n \rfloor) \in (a,b) \}}{N} = b-a.$$
for any $a,b \in \mathbf{R}$ such that $0\leq a\leq b\leq 1$. Many easily defined sequences are u.d. mod 1; for instance, $(n^c)_{n \in \mathbf{N}}$ for any $c \in (0,1)$ (by Fejer's criterion). Obviously, $(n)_n$ is not u.d. mod 1. So the next natural questions would be:
Is $(\log{n})_{n \in \mathbf{N}}$ u.d. mod 1?
Surprisingly, (or at least to me at first) it is not. I found a proof in Kuipers & Niederreiter, pages 8-9, but I don't like it. I've tried to prove the result myself, using the direct definition and also Weyl's criterion for uniform distribution. But, I haven't been able to succeed. As someone once told me: "Any good theorem ought to be proved more than once". So, does anyone know of a different proof of this claim, or care to give me some hints on how to proceed?