1

In section 9.2 on page 241, question #12 is given as follows: "Solve the three-dimensional wave equation in $\{r\ne0,t>0\}$ with zero initial conditions and with the limiting condition \begin{equation*} \lim_{r\to 0}4\pi r^{2}u_{r}(r,t) = g(t). \end{equation*} Assume that $g(0) = g^{\prime}(0) = g^{\prime\prime}(0) = 0$. The text also provides the following solution: \begin{equation*} u = \begin{cases} -\frac{1}{4\pi r}g\left(t-\frac{r}{c}\right) &\mbox{if } t \ge \frac{r}{c} \\ 0 & \mbox{if } 0\le t\le \frac{r}{c}. \end{cases} \end{equation*}

For simplicity, let $c=1$. Now, \begin{alignat*}{2} u_{r} &= \frac{4\pi r^{2}g^{\prime}(t-r) + 8\pi rg(t-r)}{16\pi^{2}r^{4}} \\ &= \frac{g^{\prime}(t-r)}{4\pi r^{2}} + \frac{g(t-r)}{2\pi r^{3}} \Rightarrow \\ u_{rr} &= \frac{-4\pi r^{2}g^{\prime\prime}(t-r)-8\pi rg^{\prime}(t-r)}{16\pi^{2}r^{4}} - \left[ \frac{2\pi r^{3}g^{\prime}(t-r)+6\pi r^{2}g(t-r)}{4\pi^{2}r^{6}}\right] \\ &= -\frac{g^{\prime\prime}(t-r)}{4\pi r^{2}} - \frac{g^{\prime}(t-r)}{\pi r^{3}} - \frac{3g(t-r)}{2\pi r^{4}}. \end{alignat*} However, \begin{alignat*}{2} u_{rr} + \frac{2}{r}u_{r} &= -\frac{g^{\prime\prime}(t-r)}{4\pi r^{2}} - \frac{g^{\prime}(t-r)}{2\pi r^{3}} - \frac{g(t-r)}{2\pi r^{4}} \\ &\ne -\frac{g^{\prime\prime}(t-r)}{4\pi r^{2}} \\ &= u_{tt}. \end{alignat*} So, \begin{equation*} u_{tt} \ne u_{rr} + \frac{2}{r}u_{r} = \Delta u \Rightarrow \end{equation*} $u$ does not solve the wave equation in 3D. What am I missing in my reasoning or calculation that can make the given solution for $u$ correct?

jpb
  • 545

1 Answers1

1

I prefer to write $u_{rr}+\frac{2}{r}u_r$ as $\frac{1}{r^2}(r^2 u_r)_r$, which has more meaning ($r^2 u_r$ is the flux through a sphere of radius $r$) and is easier to calculate with. Given $$u=-\frac{1}{4\pi} r^{-1} g(t-r/c)$$ we get $$u_r= \frac{1}{4\pi} r^{-2} g(t-r/c)+\frac{1}{4\pi c} r^{-1} g'(t-r/c)$$ hence $$r^2u_r= \frac{1}{4\pi} g(t-r/c)+\frac{1}{4\pi c} r g'(t-r/c)$$ Take one more derivative: $$\begin{split}(r^2u_r)_r&= -\frac{1}{4\pi c} g'(t-r/c)+\frac{1}{4\pi c} g'(t-r/c)-\frac{1}{4\pi c^2} r g''(t-r/c) \\ & = -\frac{1}{4\pi c^2} r g''(t-r/c)\end{split}$$ Finally, $$\frac{1}{r^2}(r^2 u_r)_r=-\frac{1}{4\pi rc^2} g''(t-r/c)$$ No quotient rule at all. It has its uses, but when you can avoid it by using the negative power of a variable, do that.