In Folland's A Course in Abstract Harmonic Analysis, he defines for a function $f$ on a topological group $G$, and $y\in G$,
$$L_{y}f:x\to f(y^{-1}x)\text{ and }R_{y}f:x\to f(xy)$$
He then remarks that the $y$ is inverted so that the map $y\mapsto L_{y}$ is a group homomorphism.
But it seems to me that $L_{yx}f = f((yx)^{-1}\cdot) = f(x^{-1}y^{-1}\cdot) = \left[L_{x}\circ L_{y}\right]f$, making the map an anti-homomorphism.
Am I misunderstanding the remark?