I have given two formulations of a general Runge Kutta Method with $s$ stages
- $$ y(x+h) = y_0 + h\sum_{i=1}^{s}b_ik_i$$ $$ k_i = f\left(x_0+c_ih;\,y_0+h\sum_{i=1}^{s}a_{ij}k_j\right)$$
- $$ y(x+h) = y_0 + h\sum_{i=1}^{s}b_if\left(x_0+c_ih;\,y_i\right) $$ $$ y_i = y_0 + \sum_{i=1}^{s}a_{ij}f\left(x_o+c_ih;\, y_i\right)$$
Those forumalas produce the same approximation, do they? But how can one show this?
Just putting in the definition of $k_i$ or respectivly $y_i$ leads to an "endless cycle".
$$k_i = f\left(x_0 + c_ih; y_0 + h \color{red}{\sum_{j=1}^i} a_{ij}k_j\right).$$
– Emily Nov 27 '13 at 21:51