Hint:
Note that $\frac{n!}{i!(n-i)!}=\binom{n}{i}$,
So $\sum_{i=1}^{n}\frac{i^2 n!}{i!(n-i)!}=\sum_{i=1}^{n}\binom{n}{i}i^2$
Consider $(1+x)^n=\sum_{i=0}^{n}\binom{n}{i}x^i$ (*)
Taking the derivative both of sides of (*),we have:
$n(1+x)^{n-1}=\sum_{i=1}^{n}\binom{n}{i}ix^{i-1}$ (**)
Mutiplying both of sides of (**) with $x$ we have:
$nx(1+x)^{n-1}=\sum_{i=1}^{n}\binom{n}{i}ix^{i}$
Taking the derivative both of sides of the above equality again gives us:
$n\left ((1+x)^{n-1}+x(n-1)(1+x)^{n-2} \right )=\sum_{i=1}^{n}\binom{n}{i}i^2x^{i}$
Now, let $x=1$ we have:
$\sum_{i=1}^{n}\frac{i^2 n!}{i!(n-i)!}=\sum_{i=1}^{n}\binom{n}{i}i^2=n(n+1)2^{n-2}$
Hope it will help you!
See here : http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/576976/evaluate-the-series-lim-limits-n-to-infty-sum-limits-i-1n-fracn22/576978#576978
– lab bhattacharjee Nov 28 '13 at 15:24