I am trying to solve the following exercise:
Let $F$ be the vector field defined by $F(x,y,z)=(-y,yz^2,x^2z)$ and $S \subset \mathbb R^3$ the surface defined as $S=\{x^2+y^2+z^2=4, z\geq 0\}$, oriented according to the exterior normal vector. Calculate: $\iint_S (\nabla\times F).dS$.
The attempt at a solution:
I've calculated the curl, it's not an easy integral to calculate.
I can't apply Stokes' theorem because it is not a closed surface, but if I consider the surface $S^{*}=\{x^2+y^2+z^2=4, z\geq 0\} \cup \{ x^2+y^2\leq 4, z=0\}$, then this is a closed surface and $F$ is of class $C^1$, so Stokes'theorem says that:
$\iint_S^{*} (\nabla\times F).dS=\int_CF.ds$ where $C$ is the boundary of the surface $S^{*}$.
Now, my original integral is
$\iint_S (\nabla\times F).dS=\iint_S^{*} (\nabla\times F).dS-\iint_D (\nabla\times F).dS $, where $D=\{ x^2+y^2\leq 4, z=0\}$. But as $D$ is a closed surface, I can also apply Stokes' theorem, so
$\iint_D (\nabla\times F).dS=\int_{C'} F.ds $, where $C'$ is the boundary of $D$.
Now, my question is: isn't $C=C'$?, I mean, the curve boundary of $S^{*}$ is the same boundary than the one of $D$. If this is the case
$\iint_S (\nabla\times F).dS=\int_C F.ds-\int_{C'} F.ds=\int_C F.ds-\int_{C} F.ds=0$.
Could someone tell me if my solution is correct?