Since I'm interested in the simulation of probability distributions on the computer. I want to simulate the Laplace distribution. When I was looking on the laplace distribution wikipedia page (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Laplace_distribution#Related_distributions) my I fell on $log(\frac{X}{Y}) \sim Laplace(0,1)$ for Uniformly distributed X and Y.
Before Using this I wanna ofcourse prove it. So I started writing $P(log(\frac{X}{Y}) \leq x)$, I divided in the cases x<0, x=0 and x>0. But i didn't get any further. Help would be appreciated.
Oh and I ofcourse googled this result, but I only found pages mentioning this, not proving it.