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If weights attached to larger items are smaller and those attached to smaller items are larger, then the weighted mean results in smaller value than the simple mean.

My try: Let the weights be $w_1<w_2<\dots<w_n $ and let the items be $x_1>x_2>\dots>x_n$,

Weighted mean: $$\frac{\sum_{i=1}^nw_ix_i}{\sum_{i=1}^nw_i}$$ and mean :$$\frac{\sum_{i=1}^nx_i}{n}.$$ How to show that $$\frac{\sum_{i=1}^nw_ix_i}{\sum_{i=1}^nw_i}<\frac{\sum_{i=1}^nx_i}{n}?$$

Silent
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2 Answers2

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Ok. I'm posting two answers because one is very general, and the other (this one) only works nicely when the weights are positive - but I wrote this one first because I thought of it first.

Assume the weights are non-negative.

Notice that if I multiply all the weights by a fixed positive number $k$, then

$$ \frac{\sum_{i=1}^nkw_ix_i}{\sum_{i=1}^nkw_i} = \frac{k\sum_{i=1}^nw_ix_i}{k\sum_{i=1}^nw_i} = \frac{\sum_{i=1}^nw_ix_i}{\sum_{i=1}^nw_i},$$

which is to say that it doesn't change anything. It also doesn't affect the order. So let us assume that we have multiplied by the correct $k$ so that $\sum_i w_i = n$.

Notice also that if I add some constant $M$ to each $x_i$, then we have both

$$\frac{\sum_{i=1}^nw_i(x_i+M)}{\sum_{i=1}^nw_i} = \frac{\sum_{i=1}^nw_ix_i}{\sum_{i=1}^nw_i} + \frac{\sum_{i=1}^nw_iM}{\sum_{i=1}^nw_i} = \frac{\sum_{i=1}^nw_ix_i}{\sum_{i=1}^nw_i} + M,$$ and $$\frac{\sum_{i=1}^n(x_i+M)}{n} = \frac{\sum_{i=1}^nx_i}{n} + M,$$ so that the difference between the weighted mean and the arithmetic mean is the same. So we can assume that all the $x_i$ are positive.

Then

$$ \frac{\sum_{i=1}^nw_ix_i}{\sum_{i=1}^nw_i} = \frac{\sum_{i=1}^nw_ix_i}{n} < \frac{\sum_{i=1}^nw_1x_i}{\sum_{i=1}^nw_i} = \frac{w_1\sum_{i=1}^nx_i}{n},$$

and since the weights are positive, $w_1 < 1$. (If $w_1 = 1$ and the other weights are all $0$, then $x_1 + 0 + 0 + \ldots < x_1 + x_2 + \ldots$, so only the strictly positive case is interesting).

So we conclude that

$$ \frac{\sum_{i=1}^nw_ix_i}{\sum_{i=1}^nw_i} < \frac{\sum_{i=1}^nx_i}{n}.$$

  • Thank you so much, Sir. I am commenting so late because yesterday it was network problem here, please pardon me. – Silent Dec 09 '13 at 04:25
  • Sir, You wrote that "$$\frac{\sum_{i=1}^n(x_i+M)}{n} = \frac{\sum_{i=1}^nx_i}{n} + M,$$ so that the difference between the weighted mean and the arithmetic mean is the same. So we can assume that all the $x_i$ are positive." But I can't understand how(and why) can we assume that.Thanks a lot in advance. – Silent Dec 09 '13 at 04:27
  • You want to show that the arithmetic mean minus the weighted mean is positive. I showed that if we add $M$ to each $x_i$, then this changes both the arithmetic mean and the weighed mean by the same number (in fact, it increases both by exactly $M$). So the difference between the arithmetic and weighted means stay the same even after we shift all the values up. Thus we may assume we have shifted all the values high enough to be positive. – davidlowryduda Dec 09 '13 at 05:02
  • @Sush: also, not that it matters, but the other answer is the more complete answer (though perhaps less nice? I don't know). – davidlowryduda Dec 09 '13 at 05:03
  • It is amazing, but little tough. I will have to work hard to fully grasp it! I am economics undergrad and am trying to understand a math Ph.D., so I will have to INVEST my time :) – Silent Dec 09 '13 at 05:05
  • Is the same true about the variance of the weighted mean? – stats_noob May 21 '23 at 05:40
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I'm posting two answers because one (this one) is very general, and the other only works nicely when the weights are positive.

Rewrite the desired inequality through cross multiplication as

$$n \sum_{i=1}^nw_ix_i < \sum_{i,\ j=1}^nw_ix_j.$$

On the right, every $w_i$ is paired with each $x_j$ exactly once. If we allow the indices to cycle for convenience, so that $x_{n+k} = x_k$, then we can rewrite this as

$$\sum_{j = 1}^n \left(\sum_{i=1}^nw_ix_i\right) < \sum_{j=1}^n\left(\sum_{i = 1}^nw_ix_{i+j}\right).$$

This slight reordering of the terms makes it clear that we can use the rearrangement inequality $n$ times to compare the $n$ parentheses-enclosed summands on the left with the $n$ on the right. The left is the minimal ordering, according to the Rearrangement inequality, so each of the $n$ copies on the left are strictly less than all but one of the summands on the right (and equal to one). Thus we get the desired equality.


Note that we implicitly require that $\sum_i w_i > 0$, since otherwise cross-multiplying as we did above flips the inequality and the statement breaks. This is because replacing $w_i$ by $-w_i$ does not change the sum on the left, as

$$ \frac{\sum_{i=1}^n(-1)w_ix_i}{\sum_{i=1}^n(-1)w_i} = \frac{-\sum_{i=1}^nw_ix_i}{-\sum_{i=1}^nw_i} = \frac{\sum_{i=1}^nw_ix_i}{\sum_{i=1}^nw_i},$$

but it does flip the ordering of the $w_i$ so that now we get the maximal weighting according to the rearrangement inequality. In other words, very small changes show that if $\sum_i w_i < 0$, then we have

$$\sum_{j = 1}^n \left(\sum_{i=1}^nw_ix_i\right) > \sum_{j=1}^n\left(\sum_{i = 1}^nw_ix_{i+j}\right).$$

A quick example to confirm this suspicion is as follows: Take $\{x_i\} = 5,3$ and $\{w_i\} = -5, -3$, so that $x_1 > x_2$ and $w_1 < w_2$. But then the weighted mean is $\frac{34}{8} > 4$ and the arithmetic mean is $4$.

  • Sir, please let me know how did you derive $ \sum_{j=1}^n\left(\sum_{i = 1}^nw_ix_{i+j}\right)$ from $ \sum_{i,\ j=1}^nw_ix_j$ ? – Silent Dec 09 '13 at 04:37
  • Also, I have not downvoted your answer, Please see this. I have never downvoted.I am very very thankful to you for making me equipped with two bright answers.I am truly obliged. – Silent Dec 09 '13 at 04:39
  • Thank you for letting me know that you didn't downvote. I happen to know who downvoted me, and it's not because of the content of this answer (as far as I know) but instead a sort of revenge downvote. I don't encourage voting in this way, but so it goes. Now, to answer your question: – davidlowryduda Dec 09 '13 at 04:55
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    The way that you see that those two sums is to note that on both sides, each pair of indices appears exactly once. On the right, it's clear that they both appear once. On the left, we collect them and look at all the j that match to a particular i, and then go to the je with the next i, and so on. In short, all pairs of indices appear exactly once on each side, and the sum is finite. Therefore they are the same. – davidlowryduda Dec 09 '13 at 04:58
  • Thank you so much Sir, for quick reply. I also wanted to reply you quickly yesterday, but the network problem!(TECHNOLOGICAL CONSTRAINT! in our economics language:) ) – Silent Dec 09 '13 at 05:00
  • Is the same true about the variance of the weighted mean? – stats_noob May 21 '23 at 05:40