I am an amateur.
Claim
$$ x \log x = O(x^{1+\epsilon}) \qquad (A)
$$
for every $\epsilon > 0$, $x \in \mathbb{R} \;, x > 2$.
Tried to disproof this, but doubt the proof is correct.
Basic idea: Define $f(x,\epsilon)= \frac{x \log x}{x^{1+\epsilon}}$, show that $f(x,\epsilon)$ is unbounded.
I suppose if $a(x)/b(x,\epsilon)$ is unbounded it is impossible $a(x)=O(b(x,\epsilon))$
Solving $x \log x = x^{1+\epsilon} $ gives $\epsilon_0 = -{\frac {\log \left( x \right) -\log \left( x\log \left( x \right) \right) }{\log \left( x \right) }}$.
$\epsilon_0$ is positive for $x$ large enough.
Consider $$f(x,\epsilon / 10) = {\frac {{x}^{1/10}\log \left( x \right) }{ \left( x\log \left( x \right) \right) ^{1/10}}} \qquad (B) $$
(B) is unbounded and the limit at infinity is infinity for positive epsilon.
I suppose this shows (A) is false.
Is this correct? In particular "Basic idea" in case of typos.
A correct proof or disproof of (A)?