Let $A(t):[0,T] \rightarrow \mathbb{R^{n\times m}}$ be continuous function. Let $$U = \text{span}\left( \bigcup_{t\in [0,T]} \text{span}(A(t)) \right)$$ Define function $f(u): L^\infty ([0,T],\mathbb{R}^m) \rightarrow U$ by: $$f(u) = \int_0^T A(t)u(t) dt$$ Is this function surjective?
first idea:
If $u$ would be allowed to be delta function, than for given $v\in U$ I would take finite number of times $t_1,\dots,t_n$ and define $u$ as $u(t) = \sum_i \delta_{t_i}(t) u_i$, that $v = \sum_i A(t_i) u_i$.
Since I'm not allowed to take delta function, I took only approximations of them. Than I can do only $f(u) = v \pm \epsilon$. Next I find $u_1$ that $f(u_1) = v-f(u) \pm \epsilon_1$. And I can continue like this. So I get $f(u)+f(u_1)+\dots + f(u_n) = v \pm \epsilon_n$.
The problem is that I cant show that $u + \sum_n u_n$ converge.
second idea:
Approximate $A(t)$ by sequence of simple functions $A_n(t)$ that still $U =\text{span}\left( \bigcup_{t\in [0,T]} \text{span}(A_n(t)) \right)$. Than one can find $u_n(t)$ that $v=\int_0^T A_n(t)u_n(t) dt$. But Now I would like to take convergent subsequence of $u_n$ but I have no idea how. I guess one would have to choose $u_n$ in "right" way so such a convergent subsequence would even exist.