From quadratic reciprocity, you get
$$\left(\frac{3}{p}\right)\left(\frac{p}{3}\right) = (-1)^\frac{(3-1)(p-1)}{4} = (-1)^\frac{p-1}{2}$$
For us to get $\left(\frac{3}{p}\right) = 1$, we must have
$$\left(\frac{p}{3}\right) = (-1)^\frac{p-1}{2}$$
If both are equal to $1$, then from $(-1)^\frac{p-1}{2}$ we get $4\mid p-1$ which implies $p\equiv 1 \pmod 4$. We must also have $p\equiv 1 \pmod 3$ since $\left(\frac{p}{3}\right)=1$. From the chinese remainder theorem, this happens if and only if $p\equiv 1 \pmod{12}$.
What if both are equal to $-1$? Can you finish off the argument?