Let $x \in [0,1]$ be given. Then $\sup_{0 \le y \le 1}f(x,y)=f(x,y_{x})$ for some $y_{x}$ because, for a fixed x, the function $y\mapsto f(x,y)$ is continuous and, hence, achieves its maximum value.
Let $\epsilon > 0$ be given. Because $f$ is uniformly continuous on $[0,1]\times[0,1]$, there exists $\delta > 0$ such that $|f(x,y)-f(x',y')| < \epsilon/2$ for any points $(x,y), (x',y') \in [0,1]\times[0,1]$ for which $|x-x'| < \delta$ and $|y-y'| < \delta$. It follows that, if $|x-x'| < \delta$, one has $|f(x,y_{x})-f(x',y_{x})| < \epsilon$, thereby guaranteeing that
$$
\sup_{0\le y\le 1}f(x',y) \ge f(x',y_{x}) > f(x,y_{x})-\epsilon = \sup_{0\le y\le 1}f(x,y)-\epsilon.
$$
Likewise, for $|x-x'| < \delta$,
$$
\sup_{0 \le y \le 1}f(x,y) > \sup_{0\le y\le 1}f(x',y)-\epsilon.
$$
So, whenever $|x-x'| < \delta$,
$$
\sup_{0\le y \le 1}f(x',y)+\epsilon > \sup_{0\le y\le 1}f(x,y) > \sup_{0\le y \le 1}f(x',y)-\epsilon,
$$
$$
|\sup_{0\le y \le 1}f(x,y)-\sup_{0\le y\le 1}f(x',y)| < \epsilon.
$$
Because $\epsilon > 0$ was arbitrary, then it follows that $x\mapsto \sup_{0\le y\le 1}f(x,y)$ is a uniformly continuous function of $x$ on $[0,1]$ and, hence, is continuous.