This is my proof. I'm not sure if it is true but perhaps someone would tell me yes or (no and why).
Since $(a^2+b^2), (b^2+c^2), (c^2+a^2)$ are greater than or equal to zero, then $(a^2+b^2)(b^2+c^2)(c^2+a^2) \geq 0$. I'll spare you the distribution and say this, $(a^2+b^2)(b^2+c^2)(c^2+a^2) + 8a^2b^2c^2 \geq 8a^2b^2c^2$
Done.